ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Exam Sample Paper 6

ISTQB Foundation Sample Paper 6

Q. 1: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?

A. 15, 19 and 25. 

B. 17, 18 and19. 

C. 18, 20 and22. 

D. 16, 26 and 32

Q. 2: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution? 

A. Implementation and execution.

B. Planning and control. 

C. Analysis and design. 

D. Test closure. 

Q. 3: Which of the following is TRUE? 

A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. 

B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects. 

C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes. 

D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.

Q. 4: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing? 

i) Regression testing is run ONLY once 

ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made 

iii) Regression testing is often automated 

iv) Regression tests need not be maintained 

Options: 

A. ii, iv. 

B. ii, iii. 

C. i, iii, iv. 

D. iii.

Q. 5: Which activities form part of test planning? 

i) Developing test cases. 

ii) Defining the overall approach to testing. 

iii) Assigning resources. 

iv) Building the test environment 

v) Writing test conditions. 

Options:

A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false. 

B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false. 

C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false. 

D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.

Q. 6: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria? 

A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning. 

B. Logging the outcome of test execution. 

C. Assessing if more tests are needed. 

D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders. 

Q. 7: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:- 

i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author). 

ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations 

iii. Formal Follow up process. 

iv. Main Objective is to find defects 

Options:

A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false 

B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false 

C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true 

D. iii is true and i ,ii,iv are false

Q. 8: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)? 

A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects 

B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case 

C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case 

D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case. 

Q. 9: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase 

A. Creating test suites from the test cases 

B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools 

C. Comparing actual results 

D. Designing the Tests

Q. 10: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :- 

i. Manager 

ii. Moderator 

iii. Scribe / Recorder 

iv. Assistant Manager 

Options:

A. i,ii,iii,iv are true 

B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. 

C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false. 

D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

Q. 11: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false: 

A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code 

B. Static testing includes desk checking 

C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections 

D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity 

Q.12: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase 

A. Test Implementation and execution 

B. Test Analysis and Design 

C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting 

D. Test Closure Activities

Q. 13: A Project risk includes which of the following : 

A. Organizational Factors 

B. Poor Software characteristics 

C. Error Prone software delivered. 

D. Software that does not perform its intended functions

Q. 14: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique? 

A. Statement Testing and coverage 

B. Decision Testing and coverage 

C. Condition Coverage 

D. Boundary value analysis

Q. 15: ________indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed

A. Severity 

B. Priority 

C. All of the above 

D. None of the above

Q. 16: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing 

A. Performance 

B. Record/Playback 

C. A. & B. 

D. None 

Q. 17: System Integration testing should be done after 

A. Integration testing 

B. System testing 

C. Unit testing 

D. Component integration testing

Q. 18: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow requirements to be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to requirements, functions and features. 

A. Incident management tools 

B. Requirements management tools 

C. Configuration management tools 

D. None

Q. 19: Statement Coverage will not check for the following. 

A. Missing Statements 

B. Unused Branches 

C. Dead Code 

D. Unused Statement

Q. 20: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is : 

A. Lack of technical documentation 

B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers 

C. Lack of training 

D. Lack of Objectivity

Q. 21: The cost of fixing a fault: 

A. Is not important 

B. Increases as we move the product towards live use 

C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use 

D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design 

E. Can never be determined

Q. 22: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by: 

A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool 

B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool 

C. The independent testing team 

D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in 

E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts

Q. 23: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique: 

A. Equivalence partitioning 

B. State transition testing 

C. LCSAJ 

D. Syntax testing 

E. Boundary value analysis

Q. 24: Success Factors for a review include: 

i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective 

ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively 

iii. Management supports a good review process. 

iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement. 

Options:

A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect

B. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect 

C. i , iii , iv , ii is in correct 

D. ii is correct

Q. 25: Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage: 

Disc = 0 
Order-qty = 0 
Read Order-qty 
If Order-qty >=20 
then Disc = 0.05 
If Order-qty >=100 
then Disc =0.1 
End if End if 

A. Statement coverage is 4 

B. Statement coverage is 1 

C. Statement coverage is 3 

D. Statement Coverage is 2

Q. 26: Benefits of Independent Testing 

A. Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers 

B. Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased. 

C. Independent Testers cannot identify defects. 

D. Independent Testers can test better than developers

Q. 27: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:- 

A. Test Analysis and Design 

B. Test Planning and control 

C. Test Implementation and execution 

D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Q. 28: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing: 

A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works. 

B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free. 

C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.

D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.

Q. 29: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:

A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis. 

B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed. 

C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing. 

D. Extensive static analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.

Q. 30: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through

          A. Scenario, Dry Run, Peer Group 

B. Pre-Meeting Preparations 

C. Formal Follow Up Process 

D. Includes Metrics

Q. 31: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing 

A. Process flow model 

B. State transaction model 

C. Menu structure model 

D. Plain language specification model

Q. 32: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review 

A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off 

B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework 

C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up 

D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off 

Q. 33: Which is not the testing objectives 

A. Finding defects 

B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information 

C. Preventing defects. 

D. Debugging defects 

Q. 34: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of quality? 

A. External failure 

B. Internal failure 

C. Appraisal 

D. Prevention

Q. 35: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are: 

A. Deviations from standards, 

B. Requirement defects, 

C. Design defects, 

D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.

E. All of the above. 

Q. 36: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective 

A. Identifying defects. 

B. Fixing defects. 

C. A. and B 

D. None of the above

Q. 37: Which of these are objectives for software testing? 

A. Determine the productivity of programmers 

B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance 

C. Eliminate every error prior to release 

D. Uncover software errors 

Q.38: Failure is _________ 

A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program 

B. Bug found before product Release 

C. Bug found after product Release 

D. Bug found during Design phase

Q. 39: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods? 

A. System testing 

B. Usability testing 

C. Performance testing 

D. Both B & C 

Q. 40: Independent Verification & Validation is 

A. Done by the Developer 

B. Done by the Test Engineers 

C. Done By Management 

D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence