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  • ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Exam Sample Paper 7

    ISTQB Foundation level Sample paper ,where ISTQB stands for International Testing Qualifications Board responsible for the “ISTQB Certified Tester”.

    ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Exam Sample Question Paper 7 - Tutorials Hut
      • There is an examination covering the contents of the syllabus related to software testing.
      • After the examination, each successful participant receives the “ISTQB-Certified-Tester” certificate.
      • This QA certification adds global recognition.

    This page has ISTQB sample paper which gives you better understanding of how question paper is framed.

        • Each ISTQB mock test/ sample paper contains 40 questions .
        • Answers are provided at the end of the page.
        • Try to finish these 40 questions in a one-hour duration.

    ISTQB Foundation Sample Paper 7

    Q. 1: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable? 

    A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification. 

    B. To identify defects in any software work product. 

    C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification. 

    D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code. 

    Q. 2: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities? 

    A. Developers. 

    B. Analysts. 

    C. Testers. 

    D. Incident Managers. 

    Q. 3: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report? 

    A. The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem. 

    B. Version of the Software Under Test. 

    C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem. 

    D. Actual and expected results.

    Q. 4: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test? 

    A. Test case specification. 

    B. Test design specification. 

    C. Test procedure specification. 

    D. Test results.

    Q. 5: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18 degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees. What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?

    A. 15, 19 and 25. 

    B. 17, 18 and19. 

    C. 18, 20 and22. 

    D. 16, 26 and 32

    Q. 6: Complete statement and branch coverage means:

    A. That you have tested every statement in the program. 

    B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program. 

    C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program. 

    D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program

    Q. 7: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-

    A. Breadth Test and Depth Test 

    B. Re-testing 

    C. Confirmation Testing 

    D. Sanity Testing 

    Q. 8: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values which belong to the same class. 

    A. 12,16,22 

    B. 24,27,17 

    C. 22,23,24 

    D. 14,15,19

    Q. 9: Static analysis tools are typically used by 

    A. Testers 

    B. Developers 

    C. Testers & Developers 

    D. None 

    Q. 10: Majority of system errors occur in the _________ phase 

    A. Requirements Phase. 

    B. Analysis and Design Phase 

    C. Development Phase 

    D. Testing Phase

    Q. 11: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed. 

    A. True 

    B. False 

    Q. 12: When to stop Testing? 

    A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires 

    B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected. 

    C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors. 

    D. None above 

    Q. 13: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior to delivery to the customer. 

    A. True 

    B. False

    Q. 14: Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests? 

    A. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing 

    B. System testing, performance testing 

    C. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing 

    D. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing 

    Q. 15: Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution? 

    A. Number of detected defects, testing cost; 

    B. Number of residual defects in the test object. 

    C. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared

    D. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed 

    Q. 16: What test items should be put under configuration management?

    A. The test object, the test material and the test environment 

    B. The problem reports and the test material 

    C. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing 

    D. The test object and the test material

    Q. 17: Maintenance testing is: 

    A. Testing management 

    B. Synonym of testing the quality of service 

    C. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software 

    D. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor 

    Q. 18: Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration? 

    A. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability 

    B. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications 

    C. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up” development model 

    D. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component testing 

    Q. 19: V-Model is: 

    A. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software development phases 

    B. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing 

    C. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB 

    D. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases

    Q. 20: The _________ Is the activity where general testing objectives are transformed into tangible test conditions and test designs 

    A. Testing Planning 

    B. Test Control 

    C. Test analysis and design 

    D. Test implementation 

    Q. 21: Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the system’s components being combined to form the system.

    A. System testing 

    B. Component Testing 

    C. Incremental Testing 

    D. Big bang testing 

    Q. 22: A test case design technique for a component in which test cases are designed to execute statements is called as? 

    A. State transition Testing 

    B. Static Testing 

    C. Transition testing 

    D. Statement testing

    Q. 23: _________ reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the code and one or two other programmers or testers. 

    A. Formal Reviews 

    B. Peer Reviews 

    C. Semi Formal Reviews 

    D. All of the above 

    Q. 24: In ________ testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on the specifications languages 

    A. State Transition Testing 

    B. Random Testing 

    C. Syntax Testing 

    D. Penetration testing

    Q. 25: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is properly performed. 

    The following should be checked for correctness 

    1. Re-initialization 

    2. Restart 

    3. Data Recovery 

    4. Check Point Mechanism 


    A. 1 and 2

     B. 1, 2 and 3 

    C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 

    D. 2 and 4 

    Q. 26: Data flow analysis studies: 

    A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program. 

    B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes. 

    C. The use of data on paths through the code. 

    D. The intrinsic complexity of the code. 

    Q. 27: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique? 

    A. Statement testing 

    B. Path testing 

    C. Data flow testing 

    D. State transition testing

    Q. 28: Error guessing: 

    A. Supplements formal test design techniques. 

    B. Can only be used in component, integration and system testing. 

    C. Is only performed in user acceptance testing. 

    D. Is not repeatable and should not be used. 

    Q. 29: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: 

    An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class? 

    A. £4800; £14000; £28000 

    B. £5200; £5500; £28000 

    C. £28001; £32000; £35000 

    D. £5800; £28000; £32000

    Q. 30: Test cases are designed during: 

    A. Test recording. 

    B. Test planning. 

    C. Test configuration. 

    D. Test specification. 

    Q. 31: A failure is: 

    A. Found in the software; the result of an error. 

    B. Departure from specified behaviour. 

    C. An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program. 

    D. A human action that produces an incorrect result. 

    Q. 32: How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required? 

    A. Metrics from previous similar projects 

    B. Discussions with the development team 

    C. Time allocated for regression testing 

    D. A. & B.

    Q. 33: What is beta testing? 

    A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location. 

    B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations. 

    C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer’s location. 

    D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations. 

    Q. 34: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage? 

    width > length
    then biggest_dimension = width
    height > width
    then biggest_dimension = height
    biggest_dimension = length
    height > length
    biggest_dimension = height


    A. 3 

    B. 4 

    C. 2 

    D. 1

    Q. 35: Find the mismatch 

    A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases 

    B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs 

    C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable 

    D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence 

    Q. 36: Use cases can be performed to test 

    A. Performance testing 

    B. Unit testing 

    C. Business scenarios 

    D. Static testing

    Q. 37: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from 

    A. Project plan 

    B. Business plan 

    C. Support plan 

    D. None of the above 

    Q. 38: To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it the test data. 

    A. Stub 

    B. Driver 

    C. Proxy 

    D. None of the above

    Q. 39: Consider the following statements about early test design: 

    i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication 

    ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix 

    iii. Early test design can find faults 

    iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements 

    v. Early test design takes more effort 


    A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false 

    B. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false 

    C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false 

    D. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false 

    E. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false 

    Q. 40: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage: Read P 

    Read Q 
    IF P+Q > 100
    Print "Large"
    If P > 50
    Print "P Large"

     A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 

    B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage 

    C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage 

    D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage 

    E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Answers to questions:

    1 B

    2 A

    3 C

    4 A

    5 A

    6 B

    7 A

    8 C

    9 B

    10 A

    11 A

    12 A

    13 B

    14 C

    15 D

    16 A

    17 C

    18 A

    19 A

    20 C

    21 D

    22 D

    23 B

    24 C

    25 C

    26 C

    27 D

    28 A

    29 D

    30 D

    31 B

    32 D

    33 B

    34 B

    35 D

    36 C

    37 A

    38 B

    39 A

    40 B

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