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  • ISTQB Certification Sample Paper 1

    istqb sample paper

    ISTQB Sample papers ,where ISTQB stands for International Testing Qualifications Board responsible for the “ISTQB Certified Tester”.

        • There is an examination covering the contents of the syllabus related to software testing.
        • After the examination, each successful participant receives the “ISTQB-Certified-Tester” certificate.
        • This QA certification adds global recognition.

    This page has ISTQB sample paper which gives you better understanding of how question paper is framed.

      • Each mock test/ sample paper contains 40 questions .
      • Answers are provided at the end of the page.
      • Try to finish these 40 questions in a one-hour duration.

    ISTQB SAMPLE PAPER EXAM QUESTIONS

    Q. 1: In software  testing  what is  the  main  purpose  of  exit  criteria?

    A. To enhance the security of the system
    B. To prevent the endless loops in code.
    C. To swerve as an alternative or “Plan-B”
    D. To define when to stop testing

    Q. 2: Which of the following is correct?

    A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in
    regression testing.
    B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression
    test team.
    C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression
    testing has been fixed correctly.
    D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to
    determine how much regression testing to do.

    Q.3:  Who   would   USUALLY   perform   debugging   activities?

    A. Developers.
    B. Analysts.
    C. Testers.
    D. Incident   Managers.

    Q. 4:  Which   is   a   potential   product   risk   factor?
    A. Failure   of   third-party   vendor
    B. Training   issues

    C. Problems   requirements   definition
    D. Poor   software   functionality

    Q.5:  Which   of   the   following   is   a   MAJOR   task   of   test 
     planning?

    A. Scheduling   test   analysis   and   design   tasks.
    B. Initiating   corrective   actions.
    C. Monitoring   progress   and   test   coverage.
    D. Measuring   and   analyzing   results.

    Q. 6: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites
    for efficient test execution?
    A. Implementation and execution.
    B. Planning and control.
    C. Analysis and design.
    D. Test closure.

    Q. 7: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test
    cases and expected results is VALID?

    Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule3 Rule 4

    Conditions
    Age <21 yrs 21-29 yrs 30-50yrs > 50yrs
    Insurance
    Class A A or B B. C or D C or D
    Actions
    Premium 100 90 70 70
    Excess 2,500 2,500 500 1000

    A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.

    B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 500.
    C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 90 and excess is 2,500.
    D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 70 and excess is 1,000.

    Q. 8: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

    i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
    ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
    iii) Regression testing is often automated
    iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
    Options:
    A. ii, iv.
    B. ii, iii.
    C. i, iii, iv.
    D. iii.

    Q.9: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?

    A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
    B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
    C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
    D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.

    Q. 10: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool
    USUALLY associated?
    A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
    B. Tool support for static testing.

    C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
    D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.

    Q. 11: Which  test  design  technique  relies  heavily  on prior  thorough 
    knowledge  of the  system?

    A. Data  driven  testing technique
    B. Experience-based  technique
    C. White-box  technique
    D. Structure-based  technique

    Q. 12: Which type of test design techniques does the following
    statement best describe a procedure to derive test cases based on the
    specification of a component?

    A. Black Box Techniques.
    B. White Box Techniques.
    C. Glass Box Techniques.
    D. Experience Based Techniques.

    Q. 13: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST
    useful?

    A. Supporting reviews.
    B. Validating models of the software.
    C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
    D. Enforcement of coding standards.

    Q.14:What  principle is  BEST  described  when  test  designs  are 
    written  by a third party?

    A. Exploratory testing
    B. Independent  testing
    C. Integration  testing
    D. Interoperability  testing

    Q. 15: Which of  the  following  is a  KEY  test  control  task?

    A. Initiating  corrective  actions
    B. Determining  the  scope
    C. Implementing  the  test  policy
    D. Scheduling  test  implementation

    Q. 16: System testing should investigate

    A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
    B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
    C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
    D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements

    Q. 17: “X” has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1
    to 99. Using BVA which is the appropriate one

    A. 0,1,2,99
    B. 1, 99, 100, 98

    C. 0, 1, 99, 100
    D. 1, 0, 1, 99

    Q.18: Which is not a testing principle?

    A. Early testing
    B. Defect clustering
    C. Pesticide paradox
    D. Exhaustive testing

    Q. 19: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational
    profiles uses the following method?

    A. Heuristic testing approach
    B. Methodical testing approach
    C. Model based testing approach
    D. Process or standard compliant testing approach

    Q. 20: You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns
    grades.

    Based on the score achieved
    the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-
    89 = B, 90-100=A
    If you apply equivalence partitioning, how many test cases will you need
    to achieve minimum test coverage?
    A. 6
    B. 8
    C. 10

    D. 12
    Q. 21: You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns
    grades.

    Based on the score achieved
    the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F, 50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A
    If you apply two-value boundary value analysis, how many test cases will you need to achieve minimum test coverage?
    A. 8
    B. 10
    C. 12
    D. 14

    Q. 22: What is the main purpose of Informal review?

    A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
    B. Find defects
    C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
    D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems

    Q. 23: Which is not a Component testing?

    A. Check the memory leaks
    B. Check the robustness
    C. Check the branch coverage
    D. Check the decision tables

    Q. 24: You have been given the following set of test cases to run. You
    have been instructed to run them in order by risk and to accomplish the testing as quickly as possible to
    provide feedback to the developers as soon as possible. Given this information, what is the best order in
    which to run these tests?

    A. 2, 4, 5, 6, 1, 3
    B. 4, 3, 2, 5, 6, 1
    C. 2, 5, 6, 4, 1, 3
    D. 6, 1, 3, 2, 4, 5

    Q. 25: Which is the non-functional testing?

    A. Performance testing
    B. Unit testing
    C. Regression testing
    D. Sanity testing

    Q. 26: Given the following test activities and tasks:
    A. Test design
    B. Test implementation

    C. Test execution
    D. Test completion
    1. Entering change requests for open defect reports
    2. Identifying test data to support the test cases
    3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
    4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause
    Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?
    A. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    B. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    C. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    D. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

    Q. 27: What can static analysis NOT find?

    A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
    B. Unreachable (“dead”) code
    C. Memory leaks
    D. Array bound violations

    Q. 28: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-

    i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
    ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
    iii. Formal Follow up process.

    iv. Main Objective is to find defects

    A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
    B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
    C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
    D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false

    Q. 29: Which of the following is a true statement regarding the V-model
    lifecycle?

    A. Testing involvement starts when the code is complete
    B. The test process is integrated with the development process
    C. The software is built in increments and each increment has activities for
    requirements, design,build and test
    D. All activities for development and test are completed sequentially

    Q.30: Usability testing is an example of which type of testing?

    A. Functional
    B. Non-functional
    C. Structural
    D. Change-related

    Q.31: Given the following statements about the relationships between
    software development activities
    and test activities in the software development lifecycle:
    1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
    2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become
    available

    3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the
    corresponding
    development activity
    4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software
    development lifecycle
    Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?

    A. True – 1, 2; False – 3, 4
    B. True – 2, 3; False – 1, 4
    C. True – 1, 2, 4; False – 3
    D. True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3

    Q.32:  From   a   Testing   perspective,   what   are   the   MAIN  
    purposes   of   Configuration   Management?:

    i) Identifying   the   version   of   software   under   test.
    ii) Controlling   the   version   of   testware   items.
    iii) Developing   new   testware  items.
    iv) Tracking   changes   to   testware   items.
    v) Analyzing   the   need   for   new   testware   items.
     
    A. ii, iv and v.
    B. ii, iii and iv.
    C. i, ii and iv.
    D. i, iii and v.

    Q.33: Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by
    the test manager?

    A. Write test summary reports based on the information gathered
    during testing
    B. Review tests developed by others
    C. Prepare and acquire test data
    D. Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications and
    models for testability

    Q. 34: Which of the following BEST defines risk level?

    A. Risk level is calculated by adding together the probabilities of all
    problem situations and the financial harm that results from them
    B. Risk level is estimated by multiplying the likelihood of a threat to
    the system by the chance that the threat will occur and will result
    in financial damage
    C. Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an
    undesirable event and the expected impact of that event
    D. Risk level is the sum of all potential hazards to a system multiplied
    by the sum of all potential losses from that system

    Q.35: Which of the following is a typical test objective?

    A. Preventing defects
    B. Repairing defects
    C. Comparing actual results to expected results
    D. Analyzing the cause of failure

    Q.36: A phone ringing momentarily distracts a programmer, causing the
    programmer to improperly program the logic that checks the upper
    boundary of an input variable. Later, during system testing, a tester
    notices that this input field accepts invalid input values. The improperly
    coded logic for the upper boundary check is:

    A. The root cause
    B. The failure
    C. The error
    D. The defect

    Q.37: Which of the following is a common test metric often used to
    monitor BOTH test preparation and
    test execution?

    A. Test case status
    B. Defect find/fix rates
    C. Test environment preparation
    D. Estimated cost to find the next defect

    Q.38: Which of the following are two factors that can be used to
    determine the level of risk?
    A. Testing and development
    B. Dynamic and reactive
    C. Statement and decision
    D. Likelihood and impact

    Q. 39: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or
    scheduling of tests is called:

    A. A dynamic analysis tool
    B. A test execution tool
    C. A debugging tool
    D. A test management tool
    E. A configuration management tool

    Q. 40: How many  test  cases  are  needed  to  achieve  100 %  decision 
    coverage?
    If (p = q) {
    s = s + 1;
    if (a < S) {
    t = 10;
    }
    } else if (p > q) {
    t = 5;
    }

    A. 3
    B. 6
    C. 5
    D. 4

    Answers to above questions:

    1. D
    2. D
    3. A
    4. D
    5. A
    6. A
    7. A
    8. B
    9. B
    10. C
    11. B
    12. A
    13. D
    14. B
    15. A
    16. C
    17. C
    18. D
    19. C
    20. B
    21. D
    22. A
    23. D
    24. A
    25. A
    26. A
    27. C
    28. B
    29. B
    30. B
    31. D
    32. C
    33. A
    34. C
    35. A
    36. D
    37. A
    38. D
    39. D
    40. D

    To apply and appear for exam refer link

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