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  • ISTQB Certification Sample Paper 5

    The ISTQB stands for International Testing Qualifications Board responsible for the “ISTQB Certified Tester”.ISTQB sample paper provided in this section which helps in successfully clearing the exam.

            • There is an examination covering the contents of the syllabus related to software testing.
            • After the examination, each successful participant receives the “ISTQB-Certified-Tester” certificate.
            • This QA certification adds global recognition.

    This page has ISTQB sample paper which gives you better understanding of how question paper is framed.

          • Each ISTQB mock test/ sample paper contains 40 questions .
          • Answers are provided at the end of the page.
          • Try to finish these 40 questions in a one-hour duration.

    ISTQB Sample Paper questions and answers:

    Q.1:Which   of   the   following   is   a   MAJOR   task   of   test   planning?

    A. Scheduling   test   analysis   and   design   tasks.
    B. Initiating   corrective   actions.
    C. Monitoring   progress   and   test   coverage.
    D. Measuring   and   analyzing   results.

    Q. 2: Which  of the  following is a  KEY  test  closure  task?

    A. Ensuring  proper  environment  setup
    B. Writing a  test summary  report
    C. Assessing  the need for additional tests
    D. Finalizing  and  archiving  testware.

    Q. 3: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required
    for 100% decision coverage?

    if width > length
    then
    biggest_dimension = width
    if height > width
    then
    biggest_dimension = height
    end_if
    else
    biggest_dimension = length
    if height > length
    then

    biggest_dimension = height
    end_if
    end_if
    A. 3
    B. 4
    C. 2
    D. 1

    Q. 4: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?

    i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
    ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
    iii) Regression testing is often automated
    iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
    Options:
    A. ii, iv.
    B. ii, iii.
    C. i, iii, iv.
    D. iii.

    Q. 5: Which of  the  problems  below  BEST  characterize  a  result of 
    software  failure?

    A. Damaged  reputation
    B. Lack  of  methodology
    C. Inadequate  training
    D. Regulatory  compliance

    Q. 6: Which of the following activities should be performed during the
    selection and implementation of a testing tool?

    i) Investigate the organisation’s test process.
    ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
    iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
    iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected
    tool.
    Options:
    A. i, ii, iii.
    B. ii, iii, iv.
    C. i, iii, iv.
    D. i, ii, iv.

    Q. 7: Match the following terms and statements.

    1.Decision Table Testing
    2.Decision Testing
    3.State Transition Testing
    4.Exploratory Testing
    W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to
    complement structured testing.
    X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re
    depending on current conditions or previous history.
    Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not
    otherwise have been exercised during testing.
    Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
    Options:

    A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
    B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
    C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
    D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.

    Q. 8: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid
    approach to component testing:
    i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
    ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
    iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
    iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
    A. i and ii.
    B. I ,  ii and iii
    C. iii.
    D. ii and iv

    Q. 9: Given the following code, which is true:

    IF A > B THEN
    C = A – B
    ELSE
    C = A + B
    ENDIF
    Read D
    IF C = D Then
    Print “Error”
    ENDIF
    A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage

    B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
    D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q. 10: Unreachable code would best be found using:

    A. Code reviews
    B. Code inspections
    C. A coverage tool
    D. A test management tool
    E. A static analysis tool

    Q. 11: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum
    number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
    Read P
    Read Q
    IF P+Q > 100 THEN
    Print “Large”
    ENDIF
    If P > 50 THEN
    Print “P Large”
    ENDIF

    A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
    C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
    D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
    E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage

    Q. 12: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:

    A. Attend a tool exhibition
    B. Invite a vendor to give a demo
    C. Analyse your needs and requirements
    D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool
    E. Search the internet

    Q. 13: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the
    Testing Life cycle:
    i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
    ii. Code b Acceptance tests
    iii. Low-level design c System tests
    iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
    A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
    B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
    C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
    D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b

    Q. 14: What  principles do “avoiding  author  bias” and “communicating 
    problems  constructively”  represent?

    A. Preventive  testing and  reactive  testing
    B. Experience-based  testing  and interoperability  testing
    C. Independent  testing and  good  interpersonal  skills
    D. Criticism  avoidance  and  effective  relationships

    Q. 15: Which  test is  OFTEN  the  responsibility  of the  customers  or 
    users  of  the  system?

    A. Usability  testing
    B. Functional  testing
    C. Maintenance  testing
    D. Acceptance  testing

    Q. 16: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:

    An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next
    $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%
    Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence
    class?

    A. $5800; $28000; $32000
    B. $0; $200; $4200
    C. $5200; $5500; $28000
    D. $28001; $32000; $35000

    Q. 17: Which of the following is true

    A. Testing is the same as quality assurance
    B. Testing is a part of quality assurance
    C. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
    D. Testing is same as debugging

    Q. 18: A test plan defines

    A. What is selected for testing
    B. Objectives and results
    C. Expected results
    D. Targets and misses

    Q. 19: Features  to be  tested,  approach  refinements  and  feature  pass
    / fail  criteria  BUT  excluding  environmental  needs  should  be 
    specified  in which  document?

    A. Test  case  specification
    B. Test  plan
    C. Test  procedure  specification
    D. Test  design  specification

    Q. 20: You have been testing software that will be used to track credit
    card purchases. You have found a defect that causes the system to
    crash, but only if a person has made and voided 10 purchases in a row.
    What is the proper priority and severity rating for this defect?

    A. Priority high, severity high
    B. Priority high, severity low
    C. Priority low, severity low
    D. Priority low, severity high

    Q. 21:Which of the following is a benefit of static analysis?

    A. Defects can be identified that might not be caught by dynamic testing
    B. Early defect identification requires less documentation
    C. Early execution of the code provides a gauge of code quality
    D. Tools are not needed because reviews are used instead of executing
    code

    Q. 22: Which of the following is an example of a good exit criterion from
    system testing?
    A. All tests should be completed
    B. The project budget should be spent
    C. All defects should be fixed
    D. All severity 1 defects must be resolved

    Q. 23: Which of the following is a correct statement?
    A. A developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen
    as a failure during dynamic testing
    B. A developer makes an error which results in a failure that may be seen
    as a fault when the software is executed
    C. A developer has introduced a failure which results in a defect that may
    be seen as a mistake during dynamic testing
    D. A developer makes a mistake which causes a bug that may be seen as
    a defect when the software is executed

    Q. 24: Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?
    A. As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists
    needed for the review
    B. As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists
    provided for the review
    C. As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based
    on the checklists provided for the review
    D. As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists
    needed for the review

    Q. 25: What is beta testing?

    A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.

    B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
    C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer’s location.
    D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.

    Q. 26: Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and
    responsibilities in a formal review?
    A. Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews
    B. Review Leader – Ensures effective running of review meetings
    C. Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review
    D. Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness

    Q. 27: Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is
    CORRECT?
    A. Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths
    through the source code exercised by tests
    B. Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows
    through the component exercised by tests
    C. Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are
    exercised with both the true and false outcomes
    D. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in
    the source code exercised by tests

    Q. 28: Which test design technique relies heavily on
    prior thorough knowledge of the system?

    A. Data driven testing technique
    B. Experience-based technique
    C. White-box technique
    D. Structure-based technique

    Q. 29: What is the main difference between static and dynamic testing?

    A. Static testing is performed by developers; dynamic testing is performed by
    testers
    B. Manual test cases are used for dynamic testing; automated tests are used
    for static testing
    C. Static testing must be executed before dynamic testing
    D. Dynamic testing requires executing the software; the software is not
    executed during static testing

    Q. 30: If a review session is led by the author of the work product, what
    type of review is it?
    A. Ad hoc
    B. Walkthrough
    C. Inspection
    D. Audit

    Q. 31: You are preparing for a review of a mobile application that will
    allow users to transfer money between bank accounts from different
    banks. Security is a concern with this application and the previous
    version of this application had numerous security vulnerabilities (some of which
    were found by hackers). It is very important that this doesn’t happen
    again.
    Given this information, what type of review technique would be most
    appropriate?

    A. Ad hoc
    B. Role-based
    C. Checklist-based
    D. Scenario

    Q. 32: Which of the following is an experience-based testing technique?

    A. Error guessing
    B. Intuitive testing
    C. Oracle-based testing
    D. Exhaustive testing

    Q. 33: As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those
    areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects
    than average.
    Which of the following testing principles is being applied?

    A. Beware of the pesticide paradox
    B. Testing is context dependent
    C. Absence-of-errors is a fallacy
    D. Defects cluster together

    Q. 34: Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise
    control system?

    A. The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-
    paste operation
    B. Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in
    the system
    C. The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is
    increased or decreased
    D. The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds

    Q. 35: How   many   test   cases   are   required   to   cover   100%  0 –
    switch   coverage   respectively   from   X2?
    Exhibit:

    ISTQB Certification Sample Paper- Switch Coverage Diagram

     

    A. 4
    B. 1
    C. 3
    D. 2

    Q.36:  From   a   Testing   perspective,   what   are   the   MAIN  
    purposes   of   Configuration   Management?:

    i) Identifying   the   version   of   software   under   test.
    ii) Controlling   the   version   of   testware   items.
    iii) Developing   new   testware  items.
    iv) Tracking   changes   to   testw  are   items.
    v) Analysing   the   need   for   new   testware   items.
     
    A. ii,   iv   and   v.
    B. ii,   iii   and   iv,
    C. i,   ii   and   iv.
    D. i,   iii   and   v.

    Q. 37: You are performing system testing of a train reservation system.
    Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system
    occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should
    actually be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary
    of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the
    urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further
    details.
    In addition to the information already provided, the following additional
    information is given:
    1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
    2. Identification of the test item
    3. Details of the test environment
    4. Urgency/priority to fix
    5. Actual results
    6. Reference to test case specification
    Which of this information is most useful to include in the defect report?

    A. 1, 2, 6
    B. 1, 4, 5, 6
    C. 2, 3, 4, 5
    D. 3, 5, 6

    Q. 38: Consider the following:
    Pick up and read the newspaper
    Look at what is on television
    If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the
    television on and watch the program
    Otherwise
    Continue reading the newspaper
    If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword

    A. SC = 1 and DC = 1
    B. SC = 1 and DC = 2
    C. SC = 1 and DC = 3
    D. SC = 2 and DC = 2
    E. SC = 2 and DC = 3

    Q.39: Which of the following are Black Box test design techniques?
    I. Boundary value analysis
    II. Branch condition testing
    III. Equivalence partitioning
    IV. State transition testing.
     
    A. I, II, III and IV
    B. I and III
    C. III and IV
    D. I, III and IV

    Q. 40: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?

    A. Testers have different biases than developers
    B. Testers are isolated from the development team
    C. Testers lack information about the test object
    D. Testers will accept responsibility for quality

    Answers for above questions:

    1. A
    2. D
    3. B
    4. B
    5. A
    6. D
    7. A
    8. B
    9. B
    10. A
    11. B
    12. C
    13. D
    14. C
    15. D
    16. A
    17. B
    18. B
    19. D
    20. D
    21. A
    22. D
    23. A
    24. D
    25. B
    26. A
    27. D
    28. B
    29. D
    30. B
    31. C
    32. A
    33. D
    34. C
    35. D
    36. C
    37. D
    38. E
    39. D
    40. A

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