ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Exam Sample Paper 5
ISTQB Foundation level Sample papers ,where ISTQB stands for International Testing Qualifications Board responsible for the “ISTQB Certified Tester”.
- There is an examination covering the contents of the syllabus related to software testing.
- After the examination, each successful participant receives the “ISTQB-Certified-Tester” certificate.
- This QA certification adds global recognition.
This page has ISTQB sample paper which gives you better understanding of how question paper is framed.
- Each ISTQB mock test/ sample paper contains 40 questions .
- Answers are provided at the end of the page.
- Try to finish these 40 questions in a one-hour duration.
ISTQB Foundation Sample Paper questions and answers:
Q.1:Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?
A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
Q. 2: Which of the following is a KEY test closure task?
A. Ensuring proper environment setup
B. Writing a test summary report
C. Assessing the need for additional tests
D. Finalizing and archiving testware.
Q. 3: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required
for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width
biggest_dimension = height
biggest_dimension = length
if height > length
biggest_dimension = height
Q. 4: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?
i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
Q. 5: Which of the problems below BEST characterize a result of
A. Damaged reputation
B. Lack of methodology
C. Inadequate training
D. Regulatory compliance
Q. 6: Which of the following activities should be performed during the
selection and implementation of a testing tool?
i) Investigate the organisation’s test process.
ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected
A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.
Q. 7: Match the following terms and statements.
1.Decision Table Testing
3.State Transition Testing
W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to
complement structured testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re
depending on current conditions or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not
otherwise have been exercised during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
Q. 8: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid
approach to component testing:
i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
A. i and ii.
B. I , ii and iii
D. ii and iv
Q. 9: Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C = A – B
C = A + B
IF C = D Then
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q. 10: Unreachable code would best be found using:
A. Code reviews
B. Code inspections
C. A coverage tool
D. A test management tool
E. A static analysis tool
Q. 11: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum
number of test cases required for full statement and branch coverage:
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q. 12: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
A. Attend a tool exhibition
B. Invite a vendor to give a demo
C. Analyse your needs and requirements
D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool
E. Search the internet
Q. 13: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the
Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Q. 14: What principles do “avoiding author bias” and “communicating
problems constructively” represent?
A. Preventive testing and reactive testing
B. Experience-based testing and interoperability testing
C. Independent testing and good interpersonal skills
D. Criticism avoidance and effective relationships
Q. 15: Which test is OFTEN the responsibility of the customers or
users of the system?
A. Usability testing
B. Functional testing
C. Maintenance testing
D. Acceptance testing
Q. 16: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next
$28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
Q. 17: Which of the following is true
A. Testing is the same as quality assurance
B. Testing is a part of quality assurance
C. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
D. Testing is same as debugging
Q. 18: A test plan defines
A. What is selected for testing
B. Objectives and results
C. Expected results
D. Targets and misses
Q. 19: Features to be tested, approach refinements and feature pass
/ fail criteria BUT excluding environmental needs should be
specified in which document?
A. Test case specification
B. Test plan
C. Test procedure specification
D. Test design specification
Q. 20: You have been testing software that will be used to track credit
card purchases. You have found a defect that causes the system to
crash, but only if a person has made and voided 10 purchases in a row.
What is the proper priority and severity rating for this defect?
A. Priority high, severity high
B. Priority high, severity low
C. Priority low, severity low
D. Priority low, severity high
Q. 21:Which of the following is a benefit of static analysis?
A. Defects can be identified that might not be caught by dynamic testing
B. Early defect identification requires less documentation
C. Early execution of the code provides a gauge of code quality
D. Tools are not needed because reviews are used instead of executing
Q. 22: Which of the following is an example of a good exit criterion from
A. All tests should be completed
B. The project budget should be spent
C. All defects should be fixed
D. All severity 1 defects must be resolved
Q. 23: Which of the following is a correct statement?
A. A developer makes a mistake which causes a defect that may be seen
as a failure during dynamic testing
B. A developer makes an error which results in a failure that may be seen
as a fault when the software is executed
C. A developer has introduced a failure which results in a defect that may
be seen as a mistake during dynamic testing
D. A developer makes a mistake which causes a bug that may be seen as
a defect when the software is executed
Q. 24: Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?
A. As part of the review planning, the reviewers create the checklists
needed for the review
B. As part of the issue communication, the reviewers fill in the checklists
provided for the review
C. As part of the review meeting, the reviewers create defect reports based
on the checklists provided for the review
D. As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists
needed for the review
Q. 25: What is beta testing?
A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer’s location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.
Q. 26: Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and
responsibilities in a formal review?
A. Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews
B. Review Leader – Ensures effective running of review meetings
C. Scribe – Fixes defects in the work product under review
D. Moderator – Monitors ongoing cost-effectiveness
Q. 27: Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is
A. Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of possible paths
through the source code exercised by tests
B. Decision coverage is a measure of the percentage of business flows
through the component exercised by tests
C. Decision coverage is a measure of the ‘if’ statements in the code that are
exercised with both the true and false outcomes
D. Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in
the source code exercised by tests
Q. 28: Which test design technique relies heavily on
prior thorough knowledge of the system?
A. Data driven testing technique
B. Experience-based technique
C. White-box technique
D. Structure-based technique
Q. 29: What is the main difference between static and dynamic testing?
A. Static testing is performed by developers; dynamic testing is performed by
B. Manual test cases are used for dynamic testing; automated tests are used
for static testing
C. Static testing must be executed before dynamic testing
D. Dynamic testing requires executing the software; the software is not
executed during static testing
Q. 30: If a review session is led by the author of the work product, what
type of review is it?
A. Ad hoc
Q. 31: You are preparing for a review of a mobile application that will
allow users to transfer money between bank accounts from different
banks. Security is a concern with this application and the previous
version of this application had numerous security vulnerabilities (some of which
were found by hackers). It is very important that this doesn’t happen
Given this information, what type of review technique would be most
A. Ad hoc
Q. 32: Which of the following is an experience-based testing technique?
A. Error guessing
B. Intuitive testing
C. Oracle-based testing
D. Exhaustive testing
Q. 33: As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those
areas of the system under test where initial testing found more defects
Which of the following testing principles is being applied?
A. Beware of the pesticide paradox
B. Testing is context dependent
C. Absence-of-errors is a fallacy
D. Defects cluster together
Q. 34: Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise
A. The developer of the system forgot to rename variables after a cut-and-
B. Unnecessary code that sounds an alarm when reversing was included in
C. The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is
increased or decreased
D. The design specification for the system wrongly states speeds
Q. 35: How many test cases are required to cover 100% 0 –
switch coverage respectively from X2?
Q.36: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN
purposes of Configuration Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testw are items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.
A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv,
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.
Q. 37: You are performing system testing of a train reservation system.
Based on the test cases performed, you have noticed that the system
occasionally reports that no trains are available, although this should
actually be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary
of the defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the
urgency of the defect and are now waiting for you to provide further
In addition to the information already provided, the following additional
information is given:
1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test item
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification
Which of this information is most useful to include in the defect report?
A. 1, 2, 6
B. 1, 4, 5, 6
C. 2, 3, 4, 5
D. 3, 5, 6
Q. 38: Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the
television on and watch the program
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
A. SC = 1 and DC = 1
B. SC = 1 and DC = 2
C. SC = 1 and DC = 3
D. SC = 2 and DC = 2
E. SC = 2 and DC = 3
Q.39: Which of the following are Black Box test design techniques?
I. Boundary value analysis
II. Branch condition testing
III. Equivalence partitioning
IV. State transition testing.
A. I, II, III and IV
B. I and III
C. III and IV
D. I, III and IV
Q. 40: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
A. Testers have different biases than developers
B. Testers are isolated from the development team
C. Testers lack information about the test object
D. Testers will accept responsibility for quality
Answers for above questions:
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