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  • ISTQB Certification Sample Paper 2

    The ISTQB stands for International Testing Qualifications Board responsible for the “ISTQB Certified Tester”. 

      • There is an examination covering the contents of the syllabus related to software testing.
      • After the examination, each successful participant receives the “ISTQB-Certified-Tester” certificate.
      • This QA certification adds global recognition.

    This page has ISTQB sample paper which gives you better understanding of how question paper is framed.

        • Each ISTQB mock test/ sample paper contains 40 questions .
        • Answers are provided at the end of the page.
        • Try to finish these 40 questions in a one-hour duration.

    Q. 1 : Which of these are objectives for software testing?

    A. Determine the productivity of programmers
    B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
    C. Eliminate every error prior to release
    D. Uncover software errors

    Q. 2 : Failure is _________

    A. Incorrect program behavior due to a fault in the program
    B. Bug found before product Release
    C. Bug found after product Release
    D. Bug found during Design phase

    Q. 3: Amount of testing performed will not depend on

    A. Risks involved
    B. Contractual requirements
    C. Legal requirements
    D. Test data.

    Q. 4: Software testing activities should start

    A. As soon as the code is written
    B. During the design stage
    C. When the requirements have been formally documented
    D. As soon as possible in the development life cycle

    Q. 5: Coverage measurement

    A. Is nothing to do with testing
    B. Is a partial measure of test thoroughness
    C. Branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
    D. Can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing

    Q. 6: Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?

    A. State-Transition
    B. Usability
    C. Performance
    D. Security

    Q. 7: Which of the following are KEY tasks of a test leader?

    i. Understanding the project risks
    ii. Measuring performance of components
    iii. Scheduling tests and other activities
    iv. Using monitoring tools as needed
    A. i and iii
    B. i and ii
    C. iii and iv
    D. ii and iii

    Q. 8: Which of the following is a static test?

    A. Code inspection
    B. Coverage analysis
    C. Usability assessment
    D. Installation test

    Q. 9: This part of a program is given:
    WHILE (condition A) Do B
    How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve
    100% decision coverage?

    A. 2
    B. Indefinite
    C. 1
    D. 4

    Q. 10: Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes
    for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and
    including 1 to and including 15

    A. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
    B. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
    C. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
    D. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more

    Q. 11:If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved,
    which of the following coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be

    A. 100% branch coverage
    B. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
    C. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
    D. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%

    Q. 12: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-

    i. Manager
    ii. Moderator
    iii. Scribe / Recorder
    iv. Assistant Manager
    A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
    B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
    C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
    D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.

    Q. 13: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:

    A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
    B. Static testing includes desk checking
    C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
    D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity

    Q. 14: Which  statements  correctly  describe  certain  phases  of a 
    formal  review?

    A. Looking  for  defects  occurs  during  kick-off  phase
    Fixing  defects  found  happens  during  rework  phase
    B. Personnel selection occurs during  planning  phase
    Gathering  metrics  happens  during  the  review  meeting phase
    C. Distributing documents occurs during  the  planning  phase
    Personal  review  happens  during  individual  preparation  phase
    D. Personnel selection occurs  during  planning  phase
    Fixing  defects  found  happens  during  rework  phase

    Q.15: You are getting ready to test another upgrade of an ERP system.
    The previous upgrade was tested by your team and has been in
    production for several years. For this situation, which of the following is
    the most appropriate test effort estimation technique?
    A. Effort-based
    B. Expert-based
    C. Metric-based
    D. Schedule-based

    Q.16: What is the primary purpose of a test execution tool?
    A. It runs automated test scripts to test the test object
    B. It automatically records defects in the defect tracking system
    C. It analyzes code to determine if there are any coding standard violations
    D. It tracks test cases, defects and requirements traceability

    Q. 17: A Project risk includes which of the following:

    A. Organizational Factors
    B. Poor Software characteristics
    C. Error Prone software delivered.
    D. Software that does not perform its intended functions

    Q. 18: In a risk-based  approach  the  risks  identified  may be  used to :
    i. Determine the test technique to be employed
    ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried  out
    iii. Prioritize testing in an  attempt to  find critical  defects as  early  as 
    iv. Determine the cost of the project

    A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
    B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
    C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
    D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false

    Q. 19: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the
    review, running the meeting and follow-up after the meeting

    A. Reviewer
    B. Author
    C. Moderator
    D. Auditor

    Q. 20: Which tasks are  performed  by  a  test  leader  versus  a  tester?
    S. Writing a  project  test  strategy
    T. Selecting  tools to  support testing
    U. Preparing  and  acquiring  data
    V. Scheduling  tests

    A. Test leader: S and V; Tester: T and U
    B. Test leader: S, T and V; Tester: U
    C. Test leader: S, U and V; Tester: T
    D. Test leader: S; Tester: T, U and V

    Q. 21: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing

    A. Performance
    B. Record/Playback
    C. A. & B.
    D. None

    Q. 22: CAST stands for

    A. Computer Aided Software Testing
    B. Computer Aided Software Tools
    C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
    D. None

    Q. 23: “How much testing is enough?”

    A. This question is impossible to answer
    B. This question is easy to answer
    C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special
    D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers

    Q. 24: Which approaches can help  increase  the  quality  of  software?

    I. Incorporating  rigorous  testing
    II. Preventing change requests
    III. Establishing defects metrics
    IV. Allocating schedule contingencies
    A. I and II are true; III and IV are false
    B. II and IV are true; I and II are false
    C. I and IV are true; II and III are false
    D. I and III are true; II and IV are false

    Q.25: If the developers are releasing code for testing that is not version
    controlled, what process is missing?
    A. Configuration management
    B. Debugging
    C. Test and defect management
    D. Risk analysis

    Q.26: If you are testing a module of code, how do you determine the
    level of decision coverage you have achieved?
    A. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the
    total number of
    executable statements in the module
    B. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the
    total number of
    decisions in the module
    C. By taking the number of decisions you have tested and dividing that by the
    total lines of code in
    the module
    D. By taking the number of decision outcomes you have tested and dividing
    that by the total number of decision outcomes in the module

    Q. 27: Which of the following best describes the behaviors defined in a
    use case that should be covered by tests?
    A. Positive path and negative path
    B. Basic, exception and error
    C. Normal, error, data, and integration
    D. Control flow, data flow and decision paths

    Q.28: You are testing a machine that scores exam papers and assigns

    Based on the score achieved the grades are as follows: 1-49 = F,
    50-59 = D-, 60-69 = D, 70-79 = C, 80-89 = B, 90-100=A
    If you apply equivalence partitioning, how many test cases will you need
    to achieve minimum test coverage?
    A. 6
    B. 8
    C. 10
    D. 12

    Q.29: Consider the following testing activities:
    1. Selecting regression tests
    2. Evaluating completeness of test execution
    3. Identifying which user stories have open defect reports
    4. Evaluating whether the number of tests for each requirement is consistent
    with the level of product risk

    Consider the following ways traceability can help testing:
    A. Improve understandability of test status reports to include status of test
    basis items
    B. Make testing auditable
    C. Provide information to assess process quality
    D. Analyze the impact of changes
    Which of the following best matches the testing activity with how traceability
    can assist that

    A. 1D, 2B, 3C, 4A
    B. 1B, 2D, 3A, 4C
    C. 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
    D. 1D, 2B, 3A, 4C

    Q.30: Prior to an iteration planning session, you are studying a user
    story and its acceptance criteria, deriving test conditions and associated test cases from the user story
    as a way of applying the principle of early QA and test. What test technique are you applying?

    A. White-box
    B. Black-box
    C. Experience-based
    D. Error guessing

    Q.31: Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory

    A. More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and
    technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at
    exploratory testing
    B. Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those
    that would result from formal test techniques
    C. The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be
    predicted in advance
    D. Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not
    white-box techniques

    Q. 32: Cost of the reviews will not include.

    A. Review process itself
    B. Metrics analysis
    C. Tool support.
    D. Process improvement.

    Q. 33: Regression testing always involves

    A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
    B. Executing a large number of different tests.
    C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.
    D. Using a test automation tool.

    Q. 34: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.

    A. Features to be tested.
    B. Environmental needs.
    C. Suspension criteria.
    D. Expected results.

    Q. 35: Software quality is not relevant to _______

    A. Correctness
    B. Usability
    C. Viability
    D. Reusability.

    Q. 36: Error guessing is:

    A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
    B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
    C. Only used when good requirements are available.
    D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.

    Q.37: You are testing a mobile app that allows users to find a nearby
    restaurant, based on the type of food they want to eat. Consider the
    following list of test cases, priorities (smaller number is high priority),
    and dependencies, in the following format:
    Test case number     Test condition covered     Priority     Logical dependency
    01.001                              Select type of food                        3                    none
    01.002                             Select restaurant                           2                  01.001
    01.003                              Get directions                               1                  01.002
    01.004                              Call restaurant                             1                   01.002
    01.005                            Make reservation                           3                   01.002

    Which of the following is a possible test execution schedule that
    considers both priorities and dependencies?

    A. 01.001, 01.002, 01.003, 01.005, 01.004
    B. 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.003, 01.005
    C. 01.003, 01.004, 01.002, 01.001, 01.002
    D. 01.001, 01.002, 01.004, 01.005, 01.003

    Q.38: You have received the following description section in a defect
    The report executed per the attached steps, but the data was incorrect.
    For example, the information in
    column 1 was wrong. See the attached screenshot. This report is critical
    to the users and they will be unable to do their jobs without this
    What is the biggest problem with this defect report?
    A. The developer won’t know how important the problem is
    B. The developer won’t know how to repeat the test
    C. The developer won’t be able to see what the tester is saying is wrong
    D. The developer won’t know what the tester expected to see

    Q.39: Which of the following is an example of a tool that supports static

    A. A tool that assists with tracking the results of reviews
    B. A defect tracking tool
    C. A test automation tool
    D. A tool that helps design test cases for security testing

    Q.40: Which of the following tools is most useful for reporting test

    A. Test management tool
    B. Static analysis tool
    C. Coverage tool
    D. Model-Based testing tools

    Answers to above questions:

    1. D
    2. A
    3. D
    4. C
    5. B
    6. A
    7. A
    8. A
    9. A
    10. A
    11. B
    12. B
    13. A
    14. D
    15. C
    16. A
    17. A
    18. C
    19. C
    20. B
    21. B
    22. A
    23. C
    24. D
    25. A
    26. D
    27. B
    28. B
    29. D
    30. B
    31. A
    32. C
    33. C
    34. D
    35. C
    36. D
    37. B
    38. D
    39. A
    40. A

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