ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Exam Sample Paper 3
ISTQB Foundation level Sample papers ,where ISTQB stands for International Testing Qualifications Board responsible for the “ISTQB Certified Tester”.
- There is an examination covering the contents of the syllabus related to software testing.
- After the examination, each successful participant receives the “ISTQB-Certified-Tester” certificate.
- This QA certification adds global recognition.
This page has ISTQB sample paper which gives you better understanding of how question paper is framed.
- Each ISTQB mock test/ sample paper contains 40 questions .
- Answers are provided at the end of the page.
- Try to finish these 40 questions in a one-hour duration.
ISTQB Foundation Sample Paper 3
Q. 1: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same
objective
A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above
Q.2: What is error guessing?
A. A testing technique used to guess where a developer is likely to have
made a mistake
B. A technique used for assessing defect metrics
C. A development technique to verify that all error paths have been coded
D. A planning technique used to anticipate likely schedule variances due to
faults
Q.3: When exploratory testing is conducted using time-boxing and test
charters, what is it called?
A. Schedule-based testing
B. Session-based testing
C. Risk-based testing
D. Formal chartering
Q. 4: System testing should investigate
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Q. 5: Contract and regulation testing is a part of
A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
Q. 6: Which of the following is a KEY task of a tester?
A. Reviewing tests developed by others
B. Writing a test strategy for the project
C. Deciding what should be automated
D. Writing test  summary reports
Q. 7: Which is not the project risks
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
Q. 8: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange
them in the correct order.
i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
A. i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
B. vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
C. i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
D. i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi
Q. 9: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions
relating to detection of threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
A. Security Testing
B. Recovery Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing
Q.10:Which of the following are potential  benefits of using test
 support tools?
A. Ensuring greater consistency and minimizing software project risks
B. Reducing repetitive  work and gaining easy access to  test information
C. Performing objective assessment and reducing the  need for training
D. Allowing for  greater reliance on the tool to automate the  test process
Q. 11: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
A. Explaining the objectives
B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
Q. 12: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following
major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test
procedures and optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing
automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
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A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 13: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be
retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully
removed. This is called
A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above
Q.14: Which of the following is an example of a task that can be carried
out as part of the test process?
A. Analyzing a defect
B. Designing test data
C. Assigning a version to a test item
D. Writing a user story
Q. 15: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more
qualified independent reviewer to detect defects.
A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance
Q. 16: Which of the  following are MAJOR test implementation andÂ
execution tasks?
I. Repeating test activities
II. Creating test suites
III. Reporting  discrepancies
IV. Logging the outcome
V. Analyzing  lessons learned
A. II, III and IV
B. I, III, IV and V
C. I, II, III and IV
D. III, IV and V
Q. 17: During testing, a defect was found in which the system crashed
when the network got disconnected while receiving data from the server.
The defect was fixed by correcting functionality which checks the
network availability during data transfer. Existing test cases did cover
100% of the module statements.
To verify the fix and ensure more extensive coverage, some tests were designed and added to the test
suite. What types of testing are mentioned above?
I. Functional testing
II. Structural testing
III. Confirmation testing
IV. Performance testing
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A. I, III and IV
B. I and III
C. II and IV
D. I, II and III
Q. 18: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or
more test design specifications.
A. Test Summary report – according to me
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script
Q. 19: Which of these are objectives for software testing?
A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors
Q. 20: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to _______
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing
C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.
Q. 21: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and
unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool.
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.
Q. 22: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own
work is :
A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity
Q. 23: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement
Q. 24: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people
C. Takes telephone calls
D. Writes the documents to be reviewed
Q. 25: In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in
each plane model is an input. A plane may have any positive number of
available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane. Using Boundary
Value analysis, a list of available seat values were generated. Which of
the following lists is correct?
A. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
B. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
C. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
D. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one
Q. 26: Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes
for the following problem: An integer field shall contain values from and
including 1 to and including 15
A. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
B. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
C. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
D. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
Q.27: Which of the following are major objectives of a pilot project for a
tool introduction?
A. Roll out, adapt, train, implement
B. Monitor, support, revise, implement
C. Learn, evaluate, decide, assess
D. Evaluate, adapt, monitor, support
Q.28: Which of the following is a project risk?
A. A defect that is causing a performance issue
B. A duplicate requirement
C. An issue with a data conversion procedure
D. A schedule that requires work during Christmas shutdown
Q.29: You are testing a banking application that allows a customer to
withdraw 20, 100 or 500 dollars in a
single transaction. The values are chosen from a drop-down list and no
other values may be entered.
How many equivalence partitions need to be tested to achieve 100%
equivalence partition coverage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 30: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Q. 31: Which is not the testing objectives
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Q.32: You are testing a scale system that determines shipping rates for a
regional web-based auto parts distributor. You want to group your test
conditions to minimize the testing.
Identify how many equivalence classes are necessary for the following
range. Weights are rounded to the nearest pound.
Weight 1 to 10 lbs. 11 to 25 lbs. 26 to 50 lbs. 51 lbs. and up
Shipping Cost $5.00 $7.50 $12.00 $17.00
A. 8
B. 6
C. 5
D. 4
Q.33: Which of the following is an extension of equivalence partitioning?
A. Decision tables
B. Decision testing
C. Boundary value analysis
D. State transition testing
Q. 34: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false
Q. 35: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation
and Execution Phase
A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests
Q.36: You are testing an e-commerce system that sells cooking supplies
such as spices, flour, and other items in bulk.
The units in which the items are sold are either grams (for spices and other expensive items) or
kilograms (for flour and other inexpensive items). Regardless of the units, the smallest valid order amount is 0.5 units (e.g., half a gram of cardamom pods) and the largest valid order amount is 25.0 units (e.g.,25 kilograms of sugar). The precision of the units’ field is 0.1 units.
Which of the following is a MINIMAL set of input values that cover the
equivalence partitions for this field?
A. 10.0, 28.0
B. 0.4, 0.5, 25.0, 25.1
C. 0.2, 0.9, 29.5
D. 12.3
Q. 37: What techniques would be MOST appropriate if theÂ
specifications are outdated?
A. Structure-based and experienced-based techniques
B. Black-box and specification-based techniques
C. Specification-based and structure-based techniques
D. Structure-based technique and exhaustive testing
Q. 38: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these
numbers, people are doing other aspects of their work much less well.
B. We don’t know how to measure a variable (our measurement is
dysfunctional) and so we don’t know how to interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong
conclusions.
D. All of the above.
Q. 39: Poor software characteristics are
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
Q.40: Which of the following is a true statement about exploratory
testing?
A. More experienced testers who have tested similar applications and
technologies are likely to do better than less experienced testers at
exploratory testing
B. Exploratory testing does not identify any additional tests beyond those
that would result from formal test techniques
C. The time required to complete an exploratory testing session cannot be
predicted in advance
D. Exploratory testing can involve the use of black-box techniques but not
white-box techniques
Answers for above questions:
1. A
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. A
7. D
8. C
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. A
13. C
14. B
15. A
16. C
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. D
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. D
32. C
33. C
34. B
35. D
36. C
37. A
38. A
39. B
40. A
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