ISTQB Foundation Level Certification Exam Sample Paper 4

• • • • • There is an examination covering the contents of the syllabus related to software testing.
        • After the examination, each successful participant receives the “ISTQB-Certified-Tester” certificate.
        • This QA certification adds global recognition.

This page has ISTQB sample paper which gives you better understanding of how question paper is framed.

• • • • Each ISTQB mock test/ sample paper contains 40 questions .
      • Answers are provided at the end of the page.
      • Try to finish these 40 questions in a one-hour duration.

ISTQB Foundation Sample Paper 4

Q. 1: V-Model is:

A. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities
integrate with software development phases
B. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
C. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
D. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and
acceptance phases

Q. 2: The _______ testing should include operational tests of the new
environment as well as of the changed software

A. System Testing
B. Integration testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintenance testing

Q. 3: Match the following.

1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known

A.1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.

Q. 4: Integration testing in the large involves:

A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.

Q. 5: When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:

A. As polite, constructive and helpful as possible
B. Firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
C. Diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
D. All of the above

Q. 6: Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I is correct
C. I, III and IV are correct

Q. 7: Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a
formal review?

A. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process
B. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
C. A walkthrough requires meeting
D. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the
failures

Q. 8: Why is testing necessary?

A. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the
software
B. Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the
quality of the software
C. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to
increase the quality
D. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.

Q. 9: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing

A. Test Analysis
B. Test Design
C. Test Execution
D. Test Planning

Q. 10: Which review is inexpensive
A. Informal Review
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical review

D. Inspection

Q. 11: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:

A. Top-down integration
B. Bottom-up integration
C. None of the above
D. Module integration

Q. 12: Verification is:

A. Checking that we are building the right system
B. Checking that we are building the system right
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants

Q. 13: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is

A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected
side effects
B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating
those tests
C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same
environment
E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent
testers

Q. 14: Testing should be stopped when:

A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A. and C.
E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested

Q.15: In what way does root cause analysis contribute to process
improvement?
A. Helps to better identify and correct the root cause of defects
B. Outlines how development teams can code faster
C. Specifies the desired root causes to be achieved by other teams
D. Contributes to the justification of future project funding

Q.16: Why is it important to avoid the pesticide paradox?
A. Dynamic testing is less reliable in finding bugs
B. Pesticides mixed with static testing can allow bugs to escape detection
C. Tests should not be context dependent
D. Running the same tests over and over will reduce the chance of finding
new defects

Q.17: Use cases are a test basis for which level of testing?
A. Unit
B. System
C. Load and performance
D. Usability

Q.18: Which of the following techniques is a form of static testing?
A. Error guessing
B. Automated regression testing
C. Providing inputs and examining the resulting outputs
D. Code review

Q.19: Which of the following is a benefit of static analysis?
A. Defects can be identified that might not be caught by dynamic testing
B. Early defect identification requires less documentation
C. Early execution of the code provides a gauge of code quality
D. Tools are not needed because reviews are used instead of executing
code

Q.20: You are testing an e-commerce transaction that has the following
states and transitions:

1. Login (invalid) > Login
2. Login > Search
3. Search > Search
4. Search > Shopping Cart
5. Shopping Cart > Search
6. Shopping Cart > Checkout
7. Checkout > Search
8. Checkout > Logout
For a state transition diagram, how many transitions should be shown?

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 16

Q.21: In a formal review, which role is normally responsible for
documenting all the open issues?

A. The facilitator
B. The author
C. The scribe
D. The manager

Q.22: You are working as a tester on an Agile team and have participated
in over two dozen user story refinement sessions with the product
owner and the developers on the team at the start of each iteration. As
the reviews have gotten more effective at detecting defects in user
stories and the product owner more adept at correcting those defects, you and the team
notice that the team’s velocity, as shown in your burndown charts, has
started to increase. Which of the following is a benefit of static testing
that MOST DIRECTLY applies to increased velocity?
A. Increasing total cost of quality
B. Reducing testing cost
C. Increasing development productivity
D. Reducing total cost of quality

Q.23: Which testing technique would be most effective in determining
and improving the maintainability of the code (assuming developers fix
what is found)?
A. Peer reviews

B. Static analysis
C. Dynamic testing
D. Unit testing

Q.24: You are testing a mobile app that allows customers to access and
manage their bank accounts.
You are running a test suite that involves evaluating each screen and
each field on each screen against a general list of user interface best
practices, derived from a popular book on the topic, that maximize
attractiveness, ease-of-use, and accessibility for such apps.

Which of the following options BEST categorizes the test technique you are using?
A. Specification-based
B. Exploratory
C. Checklist-based
D. Error guessing

Q.25: You are engaged in planning a test effort for a new mobile banking
application. As part of estimation, you first meet with the proposed
testers and others on the project. The team is well coordinated and has
already worked on similar projects. To verify the resulting estimate, you
then refer to some industry averages for testing effort and costs on similar
projects, published by a reputable consultant.
Which statement accurately describes your estimation approach?
A. A simultaneous expert-based and metrics-based approach
B. Primarily an expert-based approach, augmented with a metrics-based
approach
C. Primarily a metrics-based approach, augmented with an expert-based
approach
D. Primarily planning poker, checked by velocity from burndown charts

Q. 26: Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident
report?

A. The version number of the test object
B. Test data and used environment
C. Identification of the test case that failed
D. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault

Q.27: The reviews being used in your organization have the following
attributes:
• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced
Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?
A. Informal Review
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical Review
D. Inspection
Q. 28: Features  to be  tested,  approach  refinements  and  feature  pass
/ fail  criteria  BUT  excluding  environmental  needs  should  be 
specified  in which  document?

A. Test  case  specification
B. Test  plan
C. Test  procedure  specification
D. Test  design  specification

Q. 29: Who  should  be  responsible  for  coordinating  the  test  strategy 
with  the  project  manager and  others?

A. Tester
B. Developer
C. Customer
D. Test  leader

Q. 30: Acceptance testing means

A. Testing performed on a single stand -alone module or unit of code
B. Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted
changes were introduced
C. Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization
and end user.
D. Users test the application in the developers environment

Q. 31: Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases
are derived from a use case?

A. Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error
behaviors performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors

B. Test cases are derived by identifying the components included in the use
case and creating integration tests that exercise the interactions of these
components
C. Test cases are generated by analyzing the interactions of the actors with
the system to ensure the user interfaces are easy to use
D. Test cases are derived to exercise each of the decision points in the
business process flows of the use case, to achieve 100% decision
coverage of these flows

Q. 32: Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by
the test manager?

A. Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during
testing
B. Review tests developed by others
C. Prepare and acquire test data
D. Analyze, review, and assess requirements, specifications and models for
testability

Q. 33: Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been
spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the
remaining
tests are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and
verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

A. Entry criteria – 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 3, 4
B. Entry criteria – 2, 3, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 4, 5
C. Entry criteria – 1, 3; Exit criteria – 2, 4, 5, 6
D. Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4

Q. 34: What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide
100% branch coverage?
If(x>y) x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y)
{
y=x*y; x=x+1;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q. 35: What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide
100% branch coverage?
If(x>y) x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y)
{
y=x*y; x=x+1;
}

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q. 36: A standard for software testing terminology is:

A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2

Q. 37: In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks
in order to clear the exam. The maximum that he can score is 40 marks.
Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student clears the exam.
A. 22,23,26
B. 39,40
C. 29,30,31
D. 0,15,22

Q. 38: Given the following specification, which of the following values
for age are in the SAME equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
A. 17, 18, 19
B. 29, 30, 31
C. 18, 29, 30
D. 17, 29, 31

Q. 39: You are testing a thermostat for a heating/air conditioning system.
You have been given the following
requirements:
• When the temperature is below 70 degrees, turn on the heating system
• When the temperature is above 75 degrees, turn on the air conditioning
system
• When the temperature is between 70 and 75 degrees, inclusive, turn on fan
only
Which of the following is the minimum set of test temperature values to
achieve 100% two-value boundary value analysis coverage?

A. 70, 75
B. 65, 72, 80
C. 69, 70, 75, 76
D. 70, 71, 74, 75, 76

Q. 40: What is quality?

A. Activities focused on providing confidence that quality requirements will be
fulfilled.
B. The degree to which a component or system satisfies the stated and
implied needs of its various stakeholders
C. The degree to which a component or system protects information and data
so that persons or other components or systems have the degree of
access appropriate to their types and levels of authorization
D. The total costs incurred on quality activities and issues and often split into
prevention costs, appraisal costs, internal failure costs and external failure
costs

Answers for above questions:

1. A
2. D
3. B
4. A
5. D
6. C
7. B
8. C
9. A
10. A
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. E
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. D
19. A
20. C
21. C
22. C
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. D
27. B
28. D
29. D
30. C
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. B
35. B
36. C
37. C
38. C
39. C
40. B

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